ABFAS Boards – Rearfoot and Forefoot Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which bone tumor is most likely to be found in the epiphysis of a long bone?
• What is the radiographic hallmark of skewfoot?
• In a delayed flap procedure, when is the graft typically ready to be mobilized?
• What is the more common complication of percutaneous Achilles repair compared with open repair?
• Most common type of cyst in digits?
• Which radiographic sign is a buzz word for Ewing sarcoma?
• Bernt Hardy Stage 1 is defined as which of the following?
• What motion during the gait cycle unlocks the knee by causing the femur to rotate laterally?
• Which radiographic feature is a buzz word for Ewing sarcoma?
• Which inflammatory arthritis is associated with psoriasis?
• Term in a research study for all people who enter a study regardless of treatment, exposure, or ability to complete the study?
• Action of FDB?
• Which property determines potency of local anesthetic?
• In coagulation, which initiator is tissue factor?
• What is the most common mechanism for peroneal tendon dislocation?
• The Harris-Beath projection is most commonly used to visualize which condition?
• Which volatile anesthetic has a pungent odor and requires a vaporizer?
• Which of the following is a typical effect of rheumatoid arthritis on the subtalar joint?
• Keck and Kelly procedure is indicated for which condition?
• The Nilsonne procedure is best described as a repair of which structures?
• Which statement correctly describes the STJ axis orientation in the sagittal plane?
• Which ABI value indicates a good chance at healing?
• The subtalar joint is in which position during the swing phase of gait?
• What is the ideal age for posteromedial release in congenital clubfoot?
• Which statement about PMMA beads drainage is true?
• What is the most common complication of ankle arthrodesis in the elderly?
• Which condition can lead to a ball-in-socket type ankle joint?
• Bernt Hardy Stage 2 is characterized by which finding?
• Which gene is mutated in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
• Which procedure is described as performed in zone 3 of the gastrosoleus complex?
• In gait analysis, midstance is defined as the period between which events?
• What is the cornerstone treatment for Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
• Genu Varum is relatively normal until what age?
• What term refers to any factor/characteristic that may predict an outcome?
• Stage 3 anesthesia comprises four planes. Which option correctly describes plane four?
• Which substance commonly causes allergic reactions to ester local anesthetics?
• Which polydactyly type is the most common?
• Fibroblasts peak at the injury site at approximately how many days after injury?
• Before surgery in patients with ankylosing spondylitis, which preoperative test is particularly recommended to assess respiratory risk?
• In chronic osteomyelitis, the periosteum can form a new layer around infected bone called
• Which symptoms are typical for chronic exertional compartment syndrome during exercise?
• Which of the following is a sign of malignant hyperthermia?
• Which metal alloy contains nickel content of about 45%?
• Why does a medial calc slide work?
• In the Bernt Hardy classification, which stage describes a displaced fragment?
• Chondroblastoma is most commonly found in which bone region?
• Which joint contributes to stability of the midtarsal joint along the lateral column?
• In the frontal plane, what is the approximate axis orientation of the ankle joint?
• The sesamoid bones in the foot act as a pulley for which muscle?
• Reiter's syndrome usually affects which joint?
• What is the meaning of 'russianing' in external fixation technique?
• After an ankle fracture, how does cartilage die leading to arthritis?
• If preoperative laboratory results are older than 4-6 months, what is the recommended course of action?
• Most common cause of peroneal spastic flatfoot?
• What does it mean when a joint is open-pack?
• Which ligament limits eversion of the subtalar joint?
• What is a weakness of cohort studies?
• Which statement is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis among commonly tested antibodies?
• Which shoe modification is commonly used after first metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis?
• What provides crucial blood flow to a sural muscle flap?
• When is cerclage wire used for osseous fixation?
• In cerebral palsy with calcaneus gait, which procedure targets the gastrocnemius-soleus complex?
• Sesamoids in the foot function as pulleys for which muscle?
• How often should a patient move positions to avoid pressure ulcers?
• Soonest you can move a flap in a delayed flap technique?
• What is the approximate half-life of levothyroxine?
• What is the most poorly tolerated complication of a 1st MTP joint arthrodesis?
• Which sequence correctly lists the stages of anesthesia?
• In the midstance example, which pair of events occurs on opposite sides?
• Penicillin allergy? Which antibiotic regimen for TAR prophylaxis after GI/GU or dental procedures is appropriate?
• Which statement correctly describes Thurston-Holland sign?
• Prolonged bleeding time is most classically associated with which condition?
• Bernt Hardy Stage 3 is characterized by which finding?
• Where is the central ray entered for a calcaneal axial radiograph?
• Which suture type is preferred for ligating vessels?
• How should the image receptor be positioned for a calcaneal axial radiograph?
• Which fixation approach provides compression and promotes osteogenesis?
• Which view is named Harris Beath for evaluating coalitions?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a primary concern for implanted biomaterials?
• Which radiographic feature is classically associated with osteosarcoma?
• Vitamin B1 deficiency causes which disease?
• Which finding might be seen in PVNS on joint aspiration?
• Cedell fracture involves which part of the talus?
• What is the ideal weightbearing status after arthrodiastasis?
• The sural muscle flap requires blood flow from which vessels?
• Shepherd's fracture is a fracture of which talar structure?
• Zone 3 of the gastrosoleus complex corresponds to which structure?
• In gait analysis, the midstance phase is defined as which interval?
• In planning elective foot/ankle procedures for an HIV-positive patient, the CD4 threshold to proceed with surgery is?
• A second dose of intraoperative antibiotic is indicated in which scenario?
• What is the primary purpose of a SACH heel in an orthotic?
• At heel strike, the hip is flexed by approximately how many degrees?
• Which periosteal reaction is described as hair on end in Ewing sarcoma?
• During a Coleman block test, if the calcaneus everts, what cavus type and procedure are indicated?
• Which tissue is the most radiation-sensitive?
• Which patient history indicates the need for perioperative glucocorticoid supplementation?
• In postoperative fever classification, which cause is associated with 12-24 hours after surgery?
• Which joint is important for stability in the midtarsal joint?
• In cerebral palsy, testing for equinus is best performed under general anesthesia because the equinus is spastic.
• Which statement correctly describes the STJ axis orientation in the transverse plane?
• Which heat modality is contraindicated in children due to the potential for premature growth plate closure?
• Accessory navicular is associated with which complication?
• The term 'soap bubble' on imaging is a characteristic descriptor for which tumor?
• Antibiotic elution from calcium phosphate beads continues for about how many hours after the peak?
• In Berndt-Harty OCD lesions, which type is located on the medial talar dome and often difficult to access surgically?
• Contraindication to supramalleolar osteotomy?
• Which statement about normal measurements of the 4th and 5th metatarsals is true?
• Thurston-Holland sign is a radiographic feature associated with which fragment in Salter-Harris type II fractures?
• What is the sequence of tibial growth plate closure?
• Collagen Type IV is found in which tissue?
• Which IV anesthetic can cause adrenal insufficiency?
• Metformin should be held before surgery in which setting?
• Which conditions are listed as causing steppage gait?
• In imaging, which modality is more appropriate when evaluating articular surfaces?
• For a 1st metatarsal fracture in a child, CRPP is typically considered when which factor prevents reduction?
• Which flexor muscle is at the level of the ankle joint on MRI?
• Which joint is most likely to progress to nonunion after a triple arthrodesis?
• What determines potency of local anesthetic?
• During which phase of gait is the greatest ankle dorsiflexion required?
• What is the toxic dose of lidocaine when used with epinephrine?
• Sickle cell patients are at high risk for infection with which type of organisms due to splenic infarct?
• Osteosarcoma characteristics can include which of the following?
• In the gastroc-soleus complex, Zone I is best described as which area?
• What is a notable side effect of IV administration of Vitamin K for warfarin reversal?
• Which muscle is deepest in the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
• Initial test for HIV?
• Position and motion of the subtalar joint during the contact phase of gait are best described as?
• The extensor digitorum brevis inserts into which structure?
• Which action for morning fast-acting insulin?
• In the management of a hypervascular nonunion, which treatment option is commonly considered?
• A fatigue fracture is a fracture in metal caused by repetitive loading that creates stress risers that eventually lead to failure.
• What is the procedure name for a cock-up deformity of the 5th digit?
• An epinephrine use is contraindicated in which condition?
• The subtalar joint axis is oriented 16 degrees medial in which plane?
• What is the primary complaint of juvenile bunions?
• Which characteristic of sevoflurane is listed as a property?
• In a delayed flap technique, when is flap mobilization typically performed?
• After revascularization, how long before blood flow around a wound is optimized?
• Which statement about levothyroxine management around surgery is correct?
• What is the effect of inhaled anesthesia on blood sugars?
• During the Lapidus procedure, which structure is most at risk?
• What percent of non-traumatic amputations in the United States occur in diabetic patients?
• What is the toxic dose of Marcaine without epinephrine?
• What is the most common complication of polydactyly treatment?
• Postoperative fever at 48 hours is most commonly due to which cause?
• Which metal commonly used in implants is not in stainless steel?
• Correction of digiti quinti varus with V-Y skin plasty often doesn't work due to...
• A digit amputation with a palpable posterior tibial pulse has what approximate chance of healing?
• How long after administration is morphine most effective?
• During the gait cycle, maximum dorsiflexion is most needed at which phase?
• Which option best describes the timing for fixator removal after lengthening in external fixation?
• What penicillin dosage is recommended for open fractures at a farm due to possible Clostridium contamination?
• Which feature is most characteristic of chronic osteomyelitis?
• What provides stability to the 1st MPJ?
• In a patient with hyperthyroidism, what consideration regarding anesthesia is noted?
• Base of gait is defined as distance between what during gait cycle?
• The interosseous talocalcaneal ligament stabilizes which joint?
• How is an out-of-date tetanus status managed after trauma?
• Which statement correctly describes Stage I anesthesia?
• An Outlast shoe is used to correct in a pediatric patient?
• What is the toxic dose of lidocaine without epinephrine?
• What is the normal Boehler's angle range?
• Which ethical/legal concept is illustrated by the existence of a doctor-patient relationship?
• Rank tissues by radiosensitivity from most to least sensitive, selecting the correct sequence.
• In Lisfranc post-operative rehabilitation, what boot is used for partial weight bearing?
• Common pain med that may weaken bone/slow bone healing
• In the Koutsogianis procedure, the calcaneus is slid in which direction?
• Which bone tumor shows hazy calcifications and a salt-and-pepper pattern?
• What governing principle allows gradual distraction of bone and soft tissues in distraction protocols?
• Which term describes a nerve injury with little to no axonal damage and full recovery?
• Which statement regarding the 15% rule is true?
• What will light up on a bone scan due to renal excretion?
• What is the Murphy procedure and what is it used for?
• What percentage of rheumatoid arthritis patients have subtalar joint involvement?
• Which property of sevoflurane is particularly noted for asthma safety?
• Which statement about transitioning from IV insulin to subcutaneous insulin is correct?
• What procedure is indicated for forefoot-driven cavus after Coleman block testing?
• In comparing osteoinduction with osteoconduction, which statement is accurate?
• Dabigatran belongs to which class of anticoagulants?
• Which statement is NOT true about Iselin's disease?
• A history of myocardial infarction automatically places a patient in which ASA physical status class?
• The Wells score is a tool for assessing the risk of which condition?
• Which surgical procedure is indicated when the midtarsal joint won't lock when the heel is held in neutral?
• Which radiographic feature set is associated with osteosarcoma as potential findings?
• What is the most common cause of hammer toe?
• Which statements are true regarding vitamin D deficiency?
• In a child under 2 with recurrence after Ponseti treatment, which approach is recommended?
• OATS stands for which orthopedic procedure?
• What is the radiation protection quantity measured as the energy absorbed in matter?
• Triamcinolone is classified as which potency class for topical steroids?
• Which statement describes ropivacaine compared to bupivacaine?
• Which description corresponds to axonotmesis?
• What is the optimal glucose level for surgery?
• For a lateral view of the foot on radiography, the beam is best centered over which anatomical region?
• Which statement is a guideline for proper crutch sizing?
• When casting for orthotics, in what position should the medial and longitudinal axes be held?
• Which muscle decelerates pronation of the subtalar joint during the contact phase?
• Who should not receive an FHL transfer for Achilles rupture?
• What is a complication of triple arthrodesis to the ankle joint?
• Thurston-Holland sign is associated with which Salter-Harris fracture type?
• Why is thermal necrosis of bone problematic?
• Cocaine-induced vasoconstriction is best described as which of the following?
• Which surgical option is often included in the treatment of vertical talus?
• Why must the ankle be in neutral position when suturing the FHL and FDL together during a tibialis posterior reconstruction?
• What is the main advantage of an abductor digiti minimi muscle flap?
• Among inhaled anesthetics, which is considered the most cardioprotective?
• Genu varum is normal until what age?
• Brodie’s abscess is a type of osteomyelitis described as which?
• Which element is commonly associated with stainless steel to improve corrosion resistance, as listed in the source material?
• Cocaine vasoconstriction mechanism?
• Keck and Kelly procedure involves which of the following?
• Which electrolyte abnormality is typically seen with hyperparathyroidism?
• Difficult intubation of an RA patient is due to what?
• What is the most common cause of flap failure?
• What is a Thomas heel?
• What is the normal intermetatarsal angle between the 4th and 5th metatarsals?
• What is the 'second hit' phenomenon following polytrauma?
• Which nerve injury involves complete transection of the nerve?
• Should diuretics be held prior to surgery?
• Which shoe modification is best for supporting the medial longitudinal arch in flexible pediatric flatfoot?
• Which option is NOT a sign of malignant hyperthermia?
• In nuclear medicine bone imaging, which statement is true regarding technetium and gallium?
• How many angiosomes are in the foot?
• What is the recommended distance from the axilla to the top notch on a crutch?
• Which collagen type is commonly found in ligaments and fibrocartilage?
• Adjustment to X-rays for X-ray through cast?
• What is the shelf life of calcium phosphate antibiotic beads?
• Floating toe syndrome is most commonly attributed to which muscle tendon?
• On the morning of surgery, which adjustment should be made to basal insulin?
• Which tumor is most commonly found in the phalange bones?
• Which is the most common type of fracture of the fifth metatarsal?
• Which statement best describes moderate or conscious sedation?
• What is the recommended weightbearing approach in the nonunion setting to promote healing?
• Which property of local anesthetics allows them to block voltage-gated sodium channels?
• Which receptor is mutated in malignant hyperthermia?
• Which joint forms the lateral column of the midfoot?
• Isoflurane's approximate MAC value is which of the following?
• What is the standard postoperative protocol after Lisfranc injury?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of tissue remodeling around an implant?
• How long after a myocardial infarction should elective foot surgery be delayed?
• Why is alcohol used to dilute phenol?
• What does the Myerson procedure involve?
• Where are the landmarks for Evan's osteotomy located?
• Evan's osteotomy should be avoided in which condition?
• If the talus is displaced 1 mm laterally, what percent decrease occurs in tibiotalar contact?
• Skewfoot is a late sequelae of which deformity?
• What is the main ligament of the subtalar joint?
• Thurston-Holland sign is associated with which Salter-Harris fracture types?
• Which statement best describes the typical presentation of osteoid osteoma?
• What is the most common bone tumor in the digits?
• What is the most common congenital deformity affecting the second and third digits?
• What is the most common complication after subtalar joint arthroereisis with MBA?
• In Jones tenosuspension, which joint is commonly fused?
• Heel flare is a shoe modification used to address which condition?
• Which tendon transfer is commonly used for correcting CMT-related foot deformity?
• Which motion causes the knee to unlock during the gait cycle?
• What should also be used when using PMMA beads?
• Which surgical procedure is described for tarsal tunnel syndrome caused by a low-lying tibialis posterior muscle belly?
• What is the patient position for the calcaneal axial radiograph?
• The existence of a doctor-patient relationship is an example of which concept?
• Which statement best describes stability of the 1st MPJ?
• Which of the following is released during Steindler stripping?
• Thurston-Holland sign is typically seen with which Salter-Harris fracture types?
• An abductor digiti minimi flap is used to cover which wound?
• An ankle arthrodesis is placed in 0-5 degrees valgus because it ______.
• Which tear pattern of the peroneus brevis is associated with a chevron-shaped appearance on MRI?
• Tetracycline will cause golden yellow fluorescence in which bone lesion?
• During a Coleman block test, if the calcaneus remains in varus, what cavus type and procedure are indicated?
• For imaging a fiberglass cast, what adjustment to the X-ray technique is recommended?
• After surgery, mu receptors are upregulated, increasing the effectiveness of opioids for pain control. Which statement is true?
• What is the toxic dose of bupivacaine (Marcaine) with epinephrine?
• Which tumor is most often located in the epiphysis of a bone?
• Which inhaled anesthetic is considered most cardioprotective?
• DVT prophylaxis for a post-op patient who is still bleeding should rely on which strategy?
• What is the treatment for chronic exertional compartment syndrome?
• Which lesion is associated with radiolucent, extraarticular, geographic appearance?
• According to the 15% rule in radiography, a 15% increase in kVp will approximately double radiodensity. To counteract this, which adjustment to mAs is recommended?
• In Jones tenosuspension, which tendon is transferred to the proximal phalanx?
• During Steindler stripping, which structures are released?
• What is the typical postoperative protocol after retrograde drilling of an osteochondral defect in the ankle?
• In a delayed flap graft, the graft is typically mobilized after how many days?
• Extensor Digitorum Brevis inserts near the base of which toe structure?
• The superficial peroneal nerve is often encountered at what distance from the distal tip of the fibula?
• Which joint is fused in the Lapidus procedure?
• In congenital clubfoot, which muscle is typically the last to weaken?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of ketamine?
• Antibiotic prophylaxis after TAR for GI/GU or dental procedures in the first two years: which regimen is appropriate?
• Which imaging finding is most characteristic of giant cell tumor?
• Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by a mutation in which gene?
• Which statement best describes a keloid?
• In Von Willebrand disease, which laboratory findings are typically observed?
• Which is an example of a mechanical complication of an external fixator?
• Morphine peak effect timeframe?
• Which scoring system is used to assess the risk of venous thromboembolism in foot and ankle surgery?
• When should metformin be held prior to surgery?
• Tension band wiring is not effective for which fracture pattern?
• In radiobiology, how is a stochastic effect defined?
• What tibial sesamoid position indicates erosion of crista from the 1st metatarsal head?
• Postoperative fever at 72 hours is most commonly due to which cause?
• The subtalar joint axis is oriented at approximately how many degrees in the transverse plane?
• How long should antibiotics be stopped prior to bone biopsy?
• What is the most common complication after surgery in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?
• What is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis during surgery?
• Which statement about Charcot infection findings is most accurate based on the provided material?
• At what age should you start to consider surgery for a child with metatarsus adductus?
• What imaging modality is best for evaluating fibrous calcaneonavicular coalition?
• Which ASA physical status class is associated with an approximately 2- to 3-times increased risk for postoperative complications?
• Which statement about chronic osteomyelitis is true?
• What procedure will improve the midtarsal locking mechanism?
• What is released in a skin incision that increases coagulation?
• PVNS is defined as what?
• During gait, which phase involves the greatest ankle dorsiflexion as the body moves over the foot?
• What is an anaplastic cell?
• Following brachymet surgery with distraction, how long should the external fixator remain after the desired length is achieved?
• Which statement correctly pairs DIAL and PIMP descriptors with their shapes?
• In pes planus, the Shaffer plate is primarily designed to achieve what outcome?
• In Chopart amputations, which tendon is rerouted to the neck of the talus?
• Cocaine causes vasoconstriction primarily by which mechanism?
• Iselin's disease commonly affects which populations?
• What radiographic appearance is most characteristic of chondrosarcoma?
• To have adequate immune response during wound healing, total lymphocyte count should be above what value?
• Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with juvenile gout.
• An ankle arthroscopic portal most likely to damage the sural nerve is which option?
• Spontaneous bleeding risk increases with platelet count level?
• Which area lights up on a bone scan in a child due to high bone activity?
• What cardiac risk is associated with Zofran (ondansetron)?
• Complication of calcaneocuboid joint arthroscopy?
• Abductor digiti minimi flap is used to cover which wound?
• What is the minimum degree of malunion to warrant surgical revision of a bunionectomy?
• What is the name of the avulsion fracture of the fibula from the AITFL?
• What is the meaning of 'russianing'?
• What is the proper treatment for fracture blisters?
• On the morning of surgery, which adjustment should be made to fast-acting insulin?
• What can cause a fat emboli during IM nailing?
• Which radiographic view is best for evaluating the distal tibiofibular joint?
• Maximum amount of fibroblasts occurs how long after injury?
• The interosseous talocalcaneal ligament primarily limits which motion?
• What is the most important factor for postoperative management of an ankle fracture?
• How long after callous distraction should external fixation remain on?
• What is the most common factor associated with hallux valgus deformity?
• Does a medial calc slide tighten the plantar fascia?
• Which condition would most likely require a dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first ray?
• What is the standard care following autograft harvest from the calcaneus?
• Plane 4 of stage 3 anesthesia is characterized by which of the following?
• Which of the following is a symptom of PVNS?
• A Bosworth fracture is best described as which of the following?
• In the gastrosoleus complex, which zone contains the Achilles tendon?
• Which fixation option best describes a combination that provides compression and promotes osteogenesis?
• Which tibial sesamoid position corresponds to erosion of the crista from the first metatarsal head?
• During orthotic casting, the midtarsal joint should be pronated.
• In grafting, which thickness range is considered the thinnest and most likely to take?
• Which of the following is not a component of the Wells criteria for predicting pulmonary embolism?
• Most sensitive way to diagnose a neuroma?
• External fixator duration for ankle arthrodiastasis?
• Which Berndt-Harty OCD lesion types are typically treated nonoperatively?
• What is the elimination half-life of unfractionated heparin?
• The V in a V-Y tendon lengthening should correspond to what multiple of the advancement length?
• The lack of motion stimulates osteogenesis.
• Which of the following factors classifies a wound as dirty?
• Foot angiosomes originate from which arteries?
• Which local anesthetic is least likely to cause methemoglobinemia?
• Iselin's disease is best described as
• In Chopart amputation, which motion is most likely preserved by rerouting the tendon to the neck of the talus?
• In medical research, exposure means what?
• What is the estimated half-life of heparin?
• Which statement best describes management after an out-of-date tetanus status following trauma?
• Which components constitute open-chain pronation of the subtalar joint?
• What is the primary goal of orthotics in the treatment of flexible flatfoot?
• In a flexor digitorum longus transfer for hammertoe, under which condition would it be unlikely to succeed?
• In a child under 2 years with recurrent clubfoot after Ponseti method, what is the recommended treatment?
• Indication for peroneal longus to peroneus brevis tenodesis is overload of which metatarsal region?
• Technetium-99m bone imaging relies on binding to what structure to visualize high bone turnover?
• What to do if a bone falls on the floor?
• Aspirin should be discontinued prior to surgery in which timeframe?
• Rheumatoid factor targets which immunoglobulin?
• Tibialis anterior tendon transfer is used for which foot deformity?
• Sanders classification is predominantly based on which part of the calcaneus?
• Which list correctly represents the screw sizes found in the mini fragment screw set?
• DIAL in talar OCD lesions describes which shape?
• For metatarsalgia, what level of orthotic rigidity is described as appropriate?
• What is the best imaging modality to diagnose a calcaneal or cuboid stress fracture?
• Which shoe modification is commonly used in the treatment of flat foot?
• The primary purpose of the Lapidus procedure is to realign which joint?
• Hematogenous osteomyelitis is most commonly begins at which part of the bone?
• How far should the tip of the crutch be from the front of the foot?
• CT scans and radiographs have limited ability to depict which type of coalition in the calcaneonavicular region?
• Which of the following is NOT a primary concern for implanted biomaterials?
• Tarsal tunnel syndrome symptoms during running are most likely due to which condition?
• When is it acceptable to fuse an ankle in slight equinus?
• Which structure exhibits triplanar motion but does supinate and pronate?
• Casting with maximal pronation locks which joint?
• Postoperative fever at 24 hours is most commonly due to which cause?
• Which element is sometimes added to stainless steel?
• Reconstruction of which ligament is among vertical talus treatment options?
• Fixation for mildly displaced intraarticular fracture of the styloid process of the 5th met?
• Which artery is not a source of foot angiosomes?
• What best describes a torsion wedge nonunion?
• CD4 count threshold commonly cited for safety in elective procedures in HIV is
• What is the standard of care for lesser metatarsal neck fractures with joint dislocation?
• Which statement about diuretic management prior to surgery is supported?
• Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma in which population?
• In acromegaly, there is increased bone at the tips of the digits. True or false?
• In sustentaculum tali fracture management, which cast position is used?
• Osteoconduction is best described as which process?
• What is a common cause of allograft dislodgement after Evans procedure?
• Which osteotomy is associated with a high rate of dorsal malunion?
• In medical terminology, what is a geode most accurately described as?
• Where does the extensor digitorum brevis insert?
• Where does the flexor digitorum brevis split?
• What is the most common complication following pre-axial polydactyly repair?
• An avulsion fracture of the fibula at the insertion of the AITFL is called what?
• Which of the following is most commonly associated with acute osteomyelitis?
• What is the standard of care for lesser metatarsal neck fractures with joint dislocation?
• Which tests are included in a rheumatoid panel?
• Which ligament disruption is linked to the common complication after Evans procedure?
• What is the guideline for shifting from insulin infusion to subcutaneous insulin after surgery?
• In radiobiology, how is a nonstochastic effect defined?
• What is described as the most common intraoperative complication of a Lapidus procedure?
• Which type of fixation is an IM rod?
• Zone III corresponds to which anatomical structure?
• In septic shock due to a diabetic foot infection, what is the most important initial treatment?
• How long should a patient be nonweight bearing after gastroc recession?
• What is the main supply of blood to the talus?
• A cavus foot deformity is considered rearfoot-driven if the Coleman block test shows the calcaneus remains in varus. Which statement is true?
• What combination is best for conscious sedation?
• In the context of navicular and midfoot anatomy, which bone is the focus of Lawson's classification?
• Which of the following is NOT categorized as a biologic complication?
• What is the most common complication of clubfoot casting?
• When using technetium and gallium together for nuclear medicine imaging, which is true?
• Which condition is most likely to present with a chronic draining fistula from bone?
• Which statement best describes the Coleman block test's purpose?
• What is defined as the working length of an intramedullary (IM) nail?
• The saphenous nerve originates as a terminal sensory branch from which nerve?
• Which of the following describes a function of the soleus muscle?
• In the open kinetic chain midtarsal joint, which axis is associated with supination?
• Which action is avoided when managing fracture blisters?
• Osteoinduction is best described as which process?
• Biologic fixation is described by which classification system?
• In a triple arthrodesis, which joint fusion most directly reduces hindfoot motion?
• Which statement is most accurate regarding chronic osteomyelitis?
• Which statement best describes zone 1, zone 2, zone 3 mapping in the gastrosoleus complex?
• In Jones tenosuspension, what is the primary tendon transfer performed?
• When is the subtalar joint pronation passive?
• What is the most common surgical complication for patients with rheumatoid arthritis undergoing foot surgery?
• What skin graft thickness is most likely to take?
• Where does the extensor apparatus originate or insert?
• Which statement about the flexor digitorum brevis split is correct?
• The Mau osteotomy is oriented in which direction?
• Which structure is most commonly affected by a gastrocnemius recession?
• Vitamin D deficiency in children is classically called what condition?
• If an aneurysmal bone cyst is suspected in an adult, the recommended management is to
• What is a typical, reasonable preoperative INR target?
• How many articular facets are present in the 1st MTP joint capsule?
• In open-pack position for a joint, which is true?
• In the gastroc-soleus complex, which zone is most likely to experience overcorrection?
• Which term describes a nerve injury that is a complete transection requiring surgical repair?
• Which tumor will not invade the physis?
• The Myerson procedure is used to correct which deformity?
• Which factor causes a local anesthetic to have faster onset?
• What is the maximum recommended age of preoperative laboratory test results before surgery before they should be redrawn?
• Skew foot is the late stage of which condition?
• What is the primary mechanism of the Murphy procedure?
• Which statement best describes the modification used in the Modified Broström-Gould procedure?
• How is low molecular weight heparin primarily excreted, and in which patients should dosing be considered carefully?
• Bernt Hardy Stage 4 is characterized by which finding?
• Which statement about the ankle joint axis orientation is true?
• Which muscle is bipennate?
• What angulation is used for the central ray in a calcaneal axial radiograph?
• Which action is recommended for morning basal insulin?
• Vitamin C deficiency presents with which signs?
• In anterior cavus foot deformity, the apex occurs at which joint?
• Which statement about keloids is presented as a characteristic in the source material?
• What is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma in children?
• Which organism is classically associated with sepsis in asplenic or functionally asplenic patients with sickle cell disease?
• Why is testing for equinus in cerebral palsy best performed under general anesthesia?
• Which artery is named as the principal supplier to the talus?
• Which statement is most accurate regarding hyperthyroid perioperative management and epinephrine use?
• When should Coumadin be resumed post-op?
• The Wagner classification is used to grade which condition?
• Cocaine vasoconstriction mechanism
• In medical terminology, a geode is another term for which bone lesion?
• Which finding is not an indication for Charcot reconstruction?
• What is the term for transverse magnetization decay?
• The Nilsonne procedure involves what type of repair?
• Which polydactyly type is least common?
• STJ stands for which joint?
• Which antibody is commonly used in evaluating rheumatoid arthritis and is highly specific?
• Skew foot is the late stage of which condition?
• In biomechanics, which term is defined as the ratio of deformation to original length?
• Which technique is described as a gastrosoleus lengthening option besides Z-lengthening?
• Propofol can cause hypotension through which mechanism?
• A second dose of perioperative antibiotics is warranted in which scenario?
• What is the first fluid choice for IV resuscitation after acute blood loss?
• In a triple arthrodesis, which joint is fused first?
• What is the best procedure for dorsiflexed/inverted foot type due to overpowering of the anterior tibial tendon?
• After a subcutaneous fasciotomy for CECS, what closure technique is typically used?
• What is a common side effect of IV vitamin K administration?
• An avulsion fracture of the anterior process of the calcaneus results from pull of which ligament?
• Which feature is more characteristic of acute osteomyelitis?
• Absolute contraindication for Evan's osteotomy?
• Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting hindfoot stress injuries, such as those in the calcaneus and cuboid?
• In vitamin D deficiency, what happens to osteoid mineralization?
• Which CD4 count is the correct minimum safe level for elective foot/ankle surgery?
• Which statement describes the Ludloff osteotomy?
• Which tissue is most sensitive to ionizing radiation?
• What is the normal lateral bowing angle?
• What is the effect of opioids on bones?
• MRI finding most consistent with a longitudinal split tear of the peroneus brevis?
• What is the recommended steroid dose for moderate surgical stress prior to incision?
• What type of local anesthetic should be used with renal insufficiency?
• Iselin's apophyseal fragment runs parallel to which structure?
• In brachymetatarsia, floating toe is most commonly caused by what?
• In the gastrosoleus complex, which zone contains the myotendinous junction?
• Pernicious anemia is due to deficiency of which factor?
• Which arch is primarily supported by a Thomas heel modification?
• Which screw sizes are found in the large fragment screw set?
• Zone 1 of the gastrosoleus complex corresponds to which structure?
• What is the most common complication of non-surgical treatment of Achilles rupture?
• Hypoparathyroidism causes which of the following electrolyte changes?
• What is the 'working part' of the nail in an IM nail?
• Which common diabetes medication may be nephrotoxic?
• Warfarin inhibits which coagulation pathway?
• In juvenile bunions, the primary complaint is typically cosmetic appearance rather than pain.
• Which property determines the potency of a local anesthetic?
• Which statement does NOT describe a dirty wound?
• In the open kinetic chain midtarsal joint, which axis is pronated?
• Which ligament is the primary restraint to hindfoot inversion at the subtalar joint?
• Dwyer osteotomy is performed on which bone?
• Which element is commonly found in stainless steel?
• Which way does a Dwyer osteotomy slide the calcaneus?
• For sustentaculum tali fracture, the foot should be cast in which position?
• Charcot reconstruction aims to achieve what outcome?
• Sanders classification is used to categorize fracture patterns of which calcaneal structure?
• Calcaneonavicular coalition is best seen on which radiographic view?
• Which muscle is unipennate?
• Which statement about local anesthetics in renal impairment is accurate?
• LMWH is primarily metabolized in which organ?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a Class I topical steroid in the material?
• Which anticoagulant is a direct thrombin inhibitor?
• Collagen Type III is primarily found in which tissue?
• What is the estimated half-life of Plavix?
• On MRI imaging of Charcot arthropathy with infection, which finding is commonly observed?
• What determines the duration of a local anesthetic?
• Which statement best describes chronic osteomyelitis management?
• Which bone tumor is most common in the phalanges?
• Which tissue is the next most radiation-sensitive after bone marrow?
• Which fixation provides compression and osteogenesis?
• Which imaging modality is most helpful for evaluating suspected chronic osteomyelitis?
• Which nerve fiber type is most easily blocked by local anesthetics?
• In taking a calcaneal axial radiograph, which statement is correct?
• What is the description of the second hit phenomenon after polytrauma?
• What is the minimum muscle strength grade required for a tendon transfer?
• Eosinophilia is associated with which disease?
• Calcium phosphate antibiotic beads peak release occurs at approximately how many hours?
• Which radiographic finding is most indicative of chronic osteomyelitis?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three phases of wound healing?
• Does acromegaly cause acroosteolysis of the digits?
• During acute varus deformity correction, which procedure should be performed prophylactically?
• In suspected pulmonary embolism, a V/Q scan is preferred when which scenario is present?
• What is a common complication of calcaneocuboid arthroscopy?
• Stainless steel contains nickel in what approximate range?
• In the Myerson procedure, what does EHB stand for?
• Which muscle group tends to degenerate first generally in clubfoot?
• In the gastrosoleus complex, which zone contains the gastrocnemius muscle belly?
• Which statement best describes gallium-67 imaging in infection and inflammation?
• NSAIDs should be held prior to surgery for how long according to McGlamry?
• When is an ankle in open pack?
• ABI needed for a good chance at healing?
• What is needed to completely clean a computer that held PHI?
• What is the minimal Ankle-Brachial Index threshold commonly cited for considering amputation?
• A skin graft should not experience more tension than which suture gauge can hold under max tension?
• Initial treatment for Iselin's disease?
• Which gait abnormality is commonly observed with subtalar involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Which supramalleolar osteotomy is most often used to correct a valgus ankle?
• Which component is associated with ester-type local anesthetics and can lead to allergic reactions?
• In the ankle joint, what is the approximate axis orientation in the transverse plane?
• When should syndesmotic screws be removed?
• In the sequence of intramedullary nailing, which step is performed last?
• Zone 2 of the gastrosoleus complex corresponds to which structure?
• Which clubfoot brace connects at the leg region and can be used for rotational deformities?
• In Jones tenosuspension, which additional procedure is commonly required?
• Which muscle dorsiflexes the first ray prior to contact phase?
• Middle facet coalition of the subtalar joint may result in what type of ankle joint?
• OATS procedure is indicated for defects of what size?
• The talocalcaneal coalition is best seen on which radiographic view?
• In biomechanics, which term is defined as change in length divided by original length?
• Why is ankylosing spondylitis a concern when planning foot/ankle surgery?
• A common post-operative complication of EPF is which of the following?
• Which type of melanoma is considered most malignant?
• Which of the following is NOT an articulating surface of the 1st MTP joint?
• Which statement describes Stage II anesthesia?
• Which of the following is a Class I topical corticosteroid?
• Preoperative planning and vascular assessment are essential considerations for which procedure?
• In patients with muscular dystrophy, which organ may be affected and require preoperative testing?
• Which ligament is the primary restraint to inversion of the subtalar joint?
• Where does the Extensor Digitorum Brevis typically insert?
• Which imaging descriptor best fits unicameral bone cyst?
• Which sequence correctly lists the order of tibial growth plate closure?
• During the gait cycle, the midstance phase occurs at which moment?
• Which radiographic projection is best for visualizing a middle facet talocalcaneal coalition?
• Isoflurane is known for which characteristic among inhaled anesthetics?
• Retrograde drilling is used to treat which condition?
• A positive anterior drawer test of the ankle indicates injury to which ligament?
• Lawson's classification of naviculars pertains to which bone?
• Cerclage wires for osseous fixation are most appropriate for which fracture pattern?
• In cerebral palsy patients with calcaneus gait, what surgical intervention addresses the equinus deformity?
• What is the modification in the Modified Broström-Gould procedure?
• Which procedure lengthens the Achilles tendon by Z-lengthening?
• PIMP in talar OCD lesions describes which shape?
• What are the five steps of intramedullary nailing in order?
• Which condition is more likely to cause muscle flap failure?
• Which chemical is used in chemical matrixectomy and is considered the least painful option?
• Anesthetic pungent odor requiring a vaporizer?
• A bone lesion that does not change after how many years is considered benign and may not require regular imaging?
• Which nerve fiber type is most susceptible to nerve block?
• How is the talocrural angle defined on radiographs?
• Resolute purulent discharge is most often seen in which type of osteomyelitis?
• Triple arthrodesis is commonly used for severe hindfoot deformities in which condition?
• Which scenario is NOT listed as warranting a second dose of perioperative antibiotics?
• How much lengthening can you get with a V-Y plasty?
• The Dwyer osteotomy is best described as which of the following?
• Triple arthrodesis is used for severe hindfoot deformities in which condition?
• Minimum safe CD4 count for elective foot and ankle surgery?
• Why does infection decrease the effectiveness of local anesthetic?
• Which statement best defines informed permission in the context of a minor patient?
• What term describes the decrease in stress that occurs when a constant strain is applied to skin over time?
• Which assessment is specifically recommended before surgery for patients with severe spine deformities due to ankylosing spondylitis?